Consider the following statements about FAME India (Faster Adoption and Manufacture of (Hybrid and) Electric Vehicles) Scheme:
1) It was launched by the Ministry of Road, Transport and Shipping.
2) FAME India is a part of National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020.
Which of the above statement is /are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

The FAME India (Faster Adoption and Manufacture of (Hybrid and) Electric Vehicles) Scheme was launched by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises in 2015 to incentivize the production and promotion of eco-friendly vehicles including electric vehicles and hybrid vehicles.
FAME India is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 launched in 2013. Main thrust of FAME is to encourage electric vehicles by providing subsidies. Vehicles in most segments – two wheelers, three wheelers, electric and hybrid cars and electric buses obtained the subsidy benefit of the scheme.

Consider the following statements International UDAN scheme:
1) Under it both the Centre and the State government share the subsidy.
2) Both Indian carriers and foreign carriers can participate in the international UDAN scheme.
3) Only aircraft with capacity of 70 seats or more can fly the foreign routes.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

Unlike in domestic UDAN where both the Centre and the State government share the subsidy, it is only the State government that will provide the financial support for flights under international UDAN. But like the domestic UDAN, the financial support and flying exclusivity on the route will be for three years.
Only Indian carriers can participate in the international UDAN scheme, and only aircraft with capacity of 70 seats or more can fly the foreign routes.
International UDAN is an extension of the domestic UDAN scheme.
Under International UDAN, the plan is to connect India’s smaller cities directly to some key foreign destinations in the neighbourhood.
The scheme seeks to make use of the open skies policy that India has with other Asian countries that allows direct and unlimited flights to and from these nations to 18 Indian destinations. Now, these routes are untested, and airlines could be understandably reluctant to ply them. To encourage them to participate, the government offers a subsidy in the form of pre-decided payout per seat. Airlines are required to bid on the number of passenger seats per flight for which such support is required.

Consider the following statements with respect to National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
1) It will be a mid-term, 10 year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
2) It aims to reduce Particulate Matter (PM) pollution by 20-30% across India, by 2024.
3) 2018 is considered as the base year for this programme.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

It is a five-year action plan with a tentative target of 20-30% reduction in concentrations of PM10 and PM2.5 by 2024, with 2017 as the base year.

Global Chemicals Outlook II Report is published by:

Correct! Wrong!

The Global Chemicals Outlook II – From Legacies to Innovative Solutions: Implementing the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, mandated by the UN Environment Assembly in 2016, seeks to alert policymakers and other stakeholders to the critical role of the sound management of chemicals and waste in sustainable development. It takes stock of global trends as well as progress made and gaps in achieving the global goal to minimize the adverse impacts from chemicals and waste by 2020. The Global Chemicals Outlook II finds that the global goal to minimize adverse impacts of chemicals and waste will not be achieved by 2020. Solutions exist, but more ambitious worldwide action by all stakeholders is urgently required.

Consider the following about Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Odisha:
1) It was famous for its non-violent means and the kind of success it had achieved.
2) Walter Ewer Commission recommendations were one of the contributors to the rebellion.
3) BuxiJagabandhu was the leader of the movement.
Which of the above statement is are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

When the British started tinkering with the revenue system in 1803, the farming community of Odisha rose in rebellion. At that critical juncture, BakshiJagabandhuBidyadhar — the military chief of the King of Khurda — led his motley army of Paikas forcing the British East India Company forces to retreat. The rebellion came to be known as PaikaBidroh (Paika rebellion).
After the defeat of the King of Khurda, the British were not comfortable with these aggressive, warlike new subjects and set up a commission under Walter Ewer to look into the issue.
The Company struggled initially but they managed to put down the rebellion by mid-1817. This is the 200th year of the rebellion.

Consider the following statement with reference to Champaran movement:
1) RajkumarShukla and JB Kriplani were associated with Champaran movement.
2) One fifth of the land was to be produced with indigo in Champaran
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

The story of Champaran begins in the early nineteenth century when European planters had involved the cultivators in agreements that forced them to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their holdings (known as the tinkathia system). Towards the end of the nineteenth century, German synthetic dyes forced indigo out of the market and the European planters of Champaran, keen to release the cultivators from the obligation of cultivating indigo, tried to turn their necessity to their advantage by securing enhancements in rent and other illegal dues as a price for the release. Resistance had surfaced in 1908 as well, but the exactions of the planters continued till Raj Kumar Shukla, a local man, decided to follow Gandhiji all over the country to persuade him to come to Champaran to investigate the problem.
Gandhiji and his colleagues, who now included Brij Kishore, Rajendra Prasad and other members of the Bihar intelligentsia, Mahadev Desai and Narhari Parikh, two young men from Gujarat who had thrown in their lot with Gandhiji, and J.B. Kripalani, toured the villages and from dawn to dusk recorded the statements of peasants

Consider the following statements with reference to JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE:
1) Reginald Dyer was Lieutenant governor of Punjab at that time and Brigadier-General Micheal Dwyer, was in charge of the Amritsar city, who issued an order prohibiting public meetings and assemblies.
2) Rabindranath Tagore withdrew his knighthood and SankaranNarain resigned his membership of Viceroy’s executive council after the JallianwalaBagh tragedy.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

Micheal Dwyer was Lieutenant governor of Punjab at that time and Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer, 55, was incharge of the Amritsar city, who issued an order prohibiting public meetings and assemblies.
People were unaware of this new rule and gathered peacefully at an enclosure called the JallianwalaBagh in Amritsar for two purpose –
Celebrating Baisakhi and Protesting against arrests of their 2 leaders (satyapal and saiffuddinkitchew) who were arrested for demonstrating and inciting masses against Rowlett act.
Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer, 55, commanding a regiment of 50 Gurkha and Baluchi riflemen, got angry and ordered firing without warning upon an unarmed crowd of over 15,000 Indians gathered at JallianwalaBagh.
According to government estimates 379 people were killed, but according to historians, actually over 1,000 were killed. Aftermath - The then British Government of India formed Disorders Inquiry Committee (widely known as the Hunter Commission, named after the chairman, William, Lord Hunter, former Solicitor-General for Scotland) to inquire into the events in Punjab.
One of the three demands in Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was to redress the wrong-doings in Jallianwalabagh. Rabindranath Tagore withdrew his knighthood.
SankaranNarain resigned his membership of Viceroy’s executive council.
Uddham Singh killed Micheal DWYER (the then Lt. Governor of Punjab later on in March 1940. He didn’t kill general dyer who had already died in 1927)
April 13, 2019 marks 100 years of JallianwalaBagh Massacre when Brigadier General Reginald Dyer ordered his troops to fire at a crowd of more than 20,000 people who had gathered at JallianwalaBagh on Baisakhi day.

Consider the following statement with reference to Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms:
1) Edwin Montagu and Lord Chelmsford produced a scheme of constitutional reforms in 1918, which led to the enactment of the Government of India Act of 1919.
2) Constitutional reforms scheme led to the enlargement of the Provincial Legislative Councils.
Which of the above statement is are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

Consider the following statements with respect to Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
1) States cannot deny entry to the CBI to probe cases referred by the Constitutional courts.
2) Withdrawal of consent to CBI by a state government can be effected prospectively and not retrospectively.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

The CBI, which functions under the provisions of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, can probe offences in a state with prior approval of the state government concerned. Further, Constitutional courts can also entrust any case or class of case for investigation in exercise of inherent jurisdiction even without the consent of the respective state government. Further, in the cases which are referred by the Constitutional courts, the entry of CBI cannot be denied by that state as these do not require the consent of the state. Withdrawal of consent, if any, by a state government can be affected prospectively and not retrospectively.

Consider the following statements about Central Vigilance Commission:
1) CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than four vigilance commissioners.
2) They hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier.
3) After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a State government.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two vigilance commissioners.
They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier.

Consider the following statements:
1) Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose is the first head of the Lokpal, a national anti-corruption ombudsman.
2) Lokpal can initiate inquiry if the allegation against the Prime Minister relates to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space.
3) Lokpal’s own members do not come under the definition of “public servant”.
Which of the above statement is /are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

Recently a selection panel finalized the name of former Supreme Court judge Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose as the first head of the Lokpal, a national anti-corruption ombudsman. This comes five years after the President had given assent to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
Justice Ghose was selected by committee headed by the Prime Minister. The same selection committee will choose the Lokpal’s other members. Under the 2013 Act, the Lokpal should consist of a chairperson and such number of members, not exceeding eight, of whom 50% should be judicial members. The selection procedure for these posts is the same as that for the chairperson. A search committee will prepare a panel of candidates, a selection committee will recommend names from among this panel, and the President will appoint these as members.
The Act does not allow a Lokpal inquiry if the allegation against the Prime Minister relates to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space. Also, complaints against the Prime Minister are not to be probed unless the full Lokpal bench considers the initiation of an inquiry and at least two-thirds of the members approve it. Such an inquiry against the Prime Minister (if conducted) is to be held in camera and if the Lokpal comes to the conclusion that the complaint deserves to be dismissed, the records of the inquiry are not to be published or made available to anyone. The Act also includes the Lokpal’s own members under the definition of “public servant”. “The Chairperson, Members, officers and other employees of the Lokpal shall be deemed, when acting or purporting to act in pursuance of any of the provisions of this Act,to be public servants… It shall apply to public servants in and outside India,” it states. It clarifies that “a complaint under this Act shall only relate to a period during which the public servant was holding or serving in that capacity.”

Consider the following statements about The National Policy of Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019):
1) The policy aims at achieving a turnover of US$ 400 billion by 2025 in the ESDM sector through domestic manufacturing and export.
2) It intends to create a Sovereign Patent Fund to promote the development and acquisition of IPs in ESDM sector.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

The National Policy of Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019) replaces the National Policy of Electronics 2012 (NPE 2012).
It was proposed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
The NPE 2019 aims to position India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM).The policy will lead to the formulation of several schemes, initiatives, and measures for the development of ESDM sector.Targets - The policy aims at achieving a turnover of US$ 400 billion (approximately Rs 26,00,000 crore) by 2025 in the ESDM sector through domestic manufacturing and export.This will include a targeted production of 1 billion mobile handsets by 2025, valued at US$ 190 billion.A part of this includes 600 million mobile handsets valued at US$ 110 billion for export.
The National Policy on Electronics 2019 provides for the following:
creating an eco-system for globally competitive ESDM sector for promoting domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chainproviding incentives and support for manufacturing of core electronic componentsproviding special package of incentives for mega projects which are extremely high-tech and entail huge investments; e.g. semiconductor facilities display fabrication, etcformulating suitable schemes and incentive mechanisms to encourage new units and expansion of existing unitspromoting Industry-led R&D (research and development) and innovation in all sub-sectors of electronics[These include grass root level innovations and early stage Start-ups in emerging technology areas such as 5G, loT/Sensors, Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning, Virtual Reality, Drones, Robotics, Additive Manufacturing, Photonics, Nano-based devices, etc.]providing incentives and support for significantly enhancing the availability of skilled manpower, including re-skillingoffering special focus on Chip Design Industry, Medical Electronic Devices Industry, Automotive Electronics Industry and Power Electronics for Mobility and Strategic Electronics Industrycreating Sovereign Patent Fund (SPF) to promote the development and acquisition of IPs (Intellectual Property) in ESDM sector promoting trusted electronics value chain initiatives to improve national cyber security profile

The body responsible for the implementation of the Sagarmala Project is-

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following countries/regions do NOT have coastline on the Mediterranean Sea?

Correct! Wrong!

The countries with coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia andHerzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco, Monaco, Montenegro, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia and Turkey. In addition, the Gaza Strip and the British Overseas Territories of Gibraltar and Akrotiri and Dhekelia have coastlines on the sea.

Consider the following statements with reference to Fundamental Right:
1) Laws that affect Fundamental Rights cannot be made by State legislatures
2) Parliament can make laws to affect Fundamental Rights even if the matter falls under State List
Which of the above statement is are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures. This provision ensures that there is uniformity throughout India with regard to the nature of those fundamental rights and punishment for their infringement.
Article 35 extends the competence of the Parliament to make a law on the matters specified above, even though some of those matters may fall within the sphere of the state legislatures (i.e., State List).

Consider the following statements about National Commission for SafaiKaramcharis (NCSK):
1) It is a statutory body.
2) It makes recommendations in its annual report to Social Justice and Empowerment ministry.
Which of the above statement is /are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

National Commission for SafaiKaramcharis (NCSK) has recommended that all states across India should have individual state safaikaramchari commissions in order to end the practice of manual scavenging. NCSK was constituted as a statutory body via an act of parliament National Commission for SafaiKaramcharis Act, 1993. The act was lapsed in 2004.Now, it is a non-statutory body and its tenure is extended from time to time through government resolutions. It makes recommendations in its annual report to Social Justice and Empowerment ministry.Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act- 2013, outlaws manual scavenging but people still being employed in the manual cleaning of dry toilets sewer and septic tanks.

Arrange the following in descending order of their tenure.
1) Law Commission
2) Chairman of UPSC
3) President of India
4) Public Accounts Committee.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct! Wrong!

The tenure are –
1. Law Commission – 3 years
2. Chairman of UPSC – 6 years
3. President of India – 5 years
4. Public Accounts Committee. – 1 year

Consider the following statements about Wi-Fi Choupals
1) It is an inter-connectivity project aimed at transforming rural Internet connectivity through BharatNet.
2) The initiative is part of DigiGaon project to improve health and education services in rural areas.
3) It is an initiative of Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeITY).
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

The Union Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeITY) launched 5000 Wi-Fi Choupals in partnership with common service centers (CSCs).
CSC is an important part of the government's Digital India initiative, functions as a single access point for delivery of services electronically, including passport and Aadhaar enrollment. It also enables people to access government services such as submission of various forms and bills online and other state government services.

Consider the following statements:
1) Election Commission reviews the national and state party status of political parties every 5 years.
2) Presently India has seven recognized national parties.
Which of the above statement is /are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

The poll panel recently amended a rule whereby it will now review the national and state party status of political parties every 10 years instead of the five.
Presently, India has seven recognized national parties - Congress, BJP, BSP, CPI, CPI-M, NCP and All India Trinamool Congress

Consider the following statements with respect to Constitutional Amendment Bill:
1) Such bill can be introduced by a private member, but require prior permission of the president.
2) There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock over the passage of such bill.
Which of the above statement is /are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

Which of the following is/are not the causal factor(s) of glacial melting in Hindu Kush-Himalayan (HKH) glaciers?
1) Air Pollution
2) Deforestation
3) Global Warming
4) Land-use changes
5) Increase in Snow fall
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Correct! Wrong!

The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), an intergovernmental organization focused on environmental and social change in Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH), released the findings of a report. It suggests Global warming as the primary reason for glacial melt in the HKH region. It also says the melting could accelerate because of increased air pollution. Air pollution from the Indo-Gangetic Plains also deposits black carbon and dust on the glaciers, hastening the thaw. In general, deforestation, land-use changes, changes in precipitation and decrease in snowfall could also impact the rate of glacial retreat.

“It is one of the most useful indicators of the management status of grassland habitats. It is the world's smallest wild pig, with adults weighing only 8 kg. This species constructs a nest throughout the year”.
The species mentioned above is:

Correct! Wrong!

Pygmy Hog (Porculasalvania) is the world's smallest wild pig, with adults weighing only 8 kg. This species constructs a nest throughout the year.
It is one of the most useful indicators of the management status of grassland habitats.
The grasslands where the pygmy hog resides are crucial for the survival of other endangered species such as Indian Rhinoceros, Swamp Deer, Wild Buffalo, Hispid Hare, Bengal Florican and Swamp Francolin.
In 1996, a captive-breeding program of the species was initiated in Assam, and some hogs were reintroduced in SonaiRupai area in 2009.
Habitat: Relatively undisturbed, tall 'terai' grasslands. Formerly, the species was more widely distributed along the southern Himalayan foothills but now is restricted to only a single remnant population in Manas Wildlife Sanctuary and its buffer reserves.
Pygmy-hog-sucking Louse (Haematopinusoliveri), a parasite that feeds only on Pygmy Hogs will also fall in the same risk category of critically endangered as its survival is linked to that of the host species.
Threats: The main threats are loss and degradation of grasslands, dry-season burning, livestock grazing and afforestation of grasslands. Hunting is also a threat to the remnant population.

With reference to the pet coke:
1) It is the first layer of oil obtained from refining Canadian tar sands crude and other heavy oils
2) It is cheaper and burns hotter than coal.
3) It contains more planet-warming carbon and far more heart- and lung-damaging sulphur.
Which of the above statement is are incorrect?

Correct! Wrong!

Petroleum coke, the bottom-of-the-barrel leftover from refining Canadian tar sands crude and other heavy oils, is cheaper and burns hotter than coal. But it also contains more planet-warming carbon and far more heart- and lung-damaging sulphur. Concerns:- The petcoke burned in factories and plants is contributing to dangerously filthy air in India, which already has many of the world’s most polluted cities. It contains 17 times more sulfur than the limit set for coal, and a staggering 1,380 times more than for diesel.

Consider the following pairs:
Places in news Location
1. Lake Urima : Russia
2. Lakhwar dam : Uttarakhand
3. Renukaji Dam : Punjab
4. Lake Umiam : Meghalaya
Which of the above is/ are correctly matched?

Correct! Wrong!

Iran is witnessing revival of Lake Urmia which is one of the worst ecological disasters of recent decades. The lake is a saltwater lake.
It is situated in the mountains of northwest Iran and is fed by 13 rivers
In precise the lake is located in the west of the southern portion of the Caspian Sea.
An agreement for Renukaji Dam Multipurpose Project is to be signed soon among six states- Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Rajasthan and Uttarakhand.
Three storage projects are proposed to be constructed on the river Yamuna and two of its tributaries - Tons and Giri in the hilly regions of Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh of Upper Yamuna Basin.
Two of the are Lakhwar project on river Yamuna in Uttarakhand ,Kishau on river Tons in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh. The other one is Renukaji Dam project has been conceived as a storage project on Giri River (tributary of river Yamuna) in Sirmour District of Himachal Pradesh.
Umiam Lake (commonly known as Barapani Lake) is a reservoir in the hills 15 km (9.3 mi) north of Shillong in the state of Meghalaya, India. It was created by damming the Umiam River in the early 1960s.

Consider the following statements:
1) Kelp forests are underwater areas with a high density of brown algae seaweed.
2) A kelp bed is an example of an umbrella species.
3) They are found in deep waters of the ocean.
Which of the above statement is are correct?

Correct! Wrong!

An umbrella species is a large animal or other organism on which many other species depend. Tigers are an example of an umbrella species. Foundation species refers to the species that creates or maintains an ecosystem. Examples include corals and kelp beds. Because of their dependency upon light for photosynthesis, kelp forests form in shallow open waters and are rarely found deeper than 49-131 feet